TNSET 2018 APPLICATION

Candidates who qualify for TNSET 2018 will be governed by the eligibility criteria stipulated for the Assistant Professors of concerned Universities / Colleges / Institutions (Government/ Aided /Private) of Tamil Nadu State.

The result of the TNSET 2018 Examination held on 04.03.2018 will be published on the Website: www.tnsetexam2018mtwu.in for authenticated view by candidates who have been admitted for the exam. Only qualified candidates will receive intimation through SMS.

Apply Online :- http://www.tnsetexam2018mtwu.in/

S.No	Details	Date
1	Submission of Online Application Form	18.12.2017
2	Last Date for Applying Online	09.02.2018
3	Date of Examination	04.03.2018

CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY

1.      Candidates who have secured at least 55% of marks (without rounding off) for General/ OBC (belonging to Creamy Layer) Category and 50% for OBC(belonging to Non – Creamy Layer)/ Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Persons with Disability (PwD-VI/HI/PH), in Master’s Degree or equivalent examination from Universities/Institutions recognized by UGC New Delhi, in subjects like Sciences, Humanities (including languages), Social Sciences, Computer Science & 5 Applications, Electronic Sciences, Library & Information Science, are eligible to appear for this examination.

2.      Candidates who have appeared or will be appearing at the Master Degree(final year) examination and whose result is still awaited or candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also appear for this examination. However, such candidates will be admitted provisionally and for those who clear the TNSET 2018 examination will have to qualify within two years from the date of TNSET 2018 Examination, failing which they will be treated as disqualified.

3.      Candidates shall appear for TNSET 2018 examination in their relevant subject of their Post-Graduation only. In case the Candidate did not find the subject of their Post Graduation in the list of TNSET 2018 subjects, the Candidate may appear in UGC-NET / UGC-CSIR NET which is held twice a year.

4.      Candidates other than General Category are required to mention their Social Status in the Online Application Form. Candidates may note that they should satisfy the eligibility conditions with reference to the documents such as Community Certificate and Certificates related to PwD (VI/HI/PH), OBC(Creamy /Non Creamy Layer), when they upload their applications. The Income Certificate and Community Certificate uploaded by the candidates must be issued by the competent authorities.In case any of the Certificates mentioned above is found to be invalid by the TNSET 2018 authority at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled and they shall be liable for legal action.

5.      Candidates should note that their candidature is provisional. The mere fact that an admission card has been issued to a candidate will not imply that the TNSET 2018 authority has accepted his/her candidature. Candidates may note that candidature will be deemed final, only upon verification of eligibility conditions.

AGE LIMIT:

There is no upper age limit for applying for TNSET2018 examination.

HOW TO APPLY (APPLICATIONS HAVE TO BE SUBMITTED ONLINE only):

General Instruction:

1. The candidates must read the conditions of eligibility carefully and must satisfy themselves regarding their eligibility for the TNSET 2018 before filling the Online Application Form.

2. Submission of Online Application is mandatory. Hard copies of application form will not be accepted by Mother Teresa Women’s University.

3. Application Form must be complete in all respects as per the Notification.

4. All incomplete Application Forms will be rejected.

5. Applications submitted on any other format will not be accepted.

6. Application submitted without the prescribed fee will be rejected.

7. Before applying Online, the candidates must possess the scanned images as below:-  

·         Passport size photograph in JPG format of the file size prescribed in the online

·         Application websitewww.tnsetexam2018mtwu.in.  Signature of the candidate in JPG format of the file size prescribed in the online

·         Application website www.tnsetexam2018mtwu.in.  Income Certificate, Community Certificate and PwD Certificate issued by

·         Competent authorities are to be uploaded in PDF format of the file size prescribed in the online application website www.tnsetexam2018mtwu.in.

SUBJECTS OF TEST:

The list of 26 subjects for which examination will be conducted by TNSET 2018 along with their respective codes and the medium of question paper setting is given below:

Subject Code	Subject	Medium of Question Paper
00	Common Paper	English/Tamil
01	Chemical Sciences	English
02	Commerce	English/Tamil
03	Computer Science & Application	English
04	Economics	English/Tamil
05	Education	English/Tamil
06	Electronics	English
07	English	English
08	Geography	English/Tamil
09	Hindi	Hindi
11	History	English/Tamil
11	Home Science	English/Tamil
12	Journalism and Mass Communication	English/Tamil
13	Law	English/Tamil
14	Sanskrit	Sanskrit
15	Life Sciences	English
16	Management	English/Tamil
17	Mathematical Sciences	English
18	Tamil	Tamil
19	Telugu	Telugu
20	Physical Sciences	English
21	Political Science	English/Tamil
22	Psychology	English/Tamil
23	Social Work	English/Tamil
24	Sociology	English/Tamil
25	Earth Sciences	English
26	Library & Information Science	English/Tamil

NOTE: * The candidates who have completed/ appearing in their Master Degree in Physics / Electronics / Atomic & Molecular Physics / Classical Dynamics / Condensed matter Physics/ Electromagnetic / Experimental Design / Nuclear, Space & Particle Physics / Quantum Physics / Thermodynamics, Astronomy, Astrophysics and other related subjects can take up TNSET examination under ‘Physical Sciences’.

* The candidates who have completed / appearing in their Master Degree in Pure Mathematics / Statistics / Applied Mathematics, Mathematics with Computer Science & other related subjects can appear for TNSET examination under ‘Mathematical Sciences’.

 * The candidates who have completed/ appearing in their Master Degree in Chemistry / Chemical Sciences / Analytical Chemistry / Inorganic Chemistry / Organic Chemistry / Physical Chemistry / Medicinal Chemistry / Applied Chemistry / Nuclear Chemistry / Environmental Chemistry / Marine Chemistry / Pharmaceutical Chemistry / Bio-organic Chemistry & other related subjects can taking TNSET 2018Examination under ‘Chemical Sciences’.

* The candidates who have completed / appearing in their Master Degree in Bio Chemistry / Biology / Bio Technology / Bio Diversity & Taxonomy / Botany / Genetics / Microbiology / Physiology/ Zoology / Fishery Science / Animal Biology / Marine Biology / Applied Genetics & other related can write TNSET examination under ‘Life Sciences’.

* The candidates who have completed / appearing in their Master Degree in Geology / Applied Geology / Geo-physics / Meteorology / Oceanography / Physical Geography / Earth Science / Earth & Atmospheric Science / Earth Science Resource Management / Marine Geology / Petroleum Geology / Geo-informatics / Geographical Information System (GIS) / Applied Geochemistry / Geography & other related subjects can taking TNSET examination under ‘Earth Sciences’.

Those Post Graduate students who have passed Post Graduate examination in more than one subject can appear for TNSET 2018 examination only in one subject at a time.

EXAMINATION FEE AND MODE OF PAYMENT:

Category	General/ OBC Creamy Layer	OBC (Non Creamy Layer)/ as per the list available on website: www.tnpsc.gov.in	SC/ST/PwDVI,HI,PH
Examination Fee	Rs. 1500/-	Rs. 1250/-	Rs. 500/-

TNSET 2016 COMPUTER SCIENCE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER KEY

1.      The NOR function is the dual of

A.    AND function

B.     OR function

C.     XOR function

D.    NAND function

2.      The NOT operation is obtained by using one input

A.    AND gate

B.     OR gate

C.     NAND gate

D.    NOR gate

3.      The instruction, MOV AX,[BX] is an example of

Direct addressing mode

Register addressing mode

Register relative addressing mode

Register indirect addressing mode

4.      To address a memory location out of N memory locations, the number of address lines required is

Log N (to the base 2)

Log N (to the base 10)

Log N (to the base e)

Log (2N) (to the base 2)

5.      In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all type interrupts

A.    NMI

B.     DIV 0

C.     TYPE 255

D.    OVER FLOW

6.      …………………. Is set if there is any carry out from lower nibble to higher nibble

A.    Auxiliary carry

B.     Carry flag

C.     Carry Auxiliary flag

D.    Parity flag

7.      How many flip – flop circuits are needed to divide by 16?

A.    2

B.     4

C.     8

D.    16

8.      A decimal counter has …………….. states

A.    5

B.     10

C.     15

D.    20

9.      In PL/SQL, which part contains the condition section?

A.    Executable commands

B.     Exception handling

C.     Declaration

D.    Result part

10.  In magnetic disk the surface of the platter is divided into ………………..

A.    Sectors

B.     Cylinders

C.     Tracks

D.    Blocks

11.  In shadow database, which will help to point out the current consistent copy of the database?

A.    Pointer

B.     Db-pointer

C.     Dp-pointer

D.    Bd-pointer

12.  ………………… property will check whether all the operation of a transaction completed or none

A.    Atomicity

B.     Consistency

C.     Isolation

D.    Durability

13.  In a ……………….. index, an index entry appears for every search – key value in the file

A.    Dense

B.     Sparse

C.     Hash

D.    Ordered

14.  Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting relations and relating schema?

A.    DML (Data Manipulation Language)

B.     DDL (Data Definition Language)

C.     Query

D.    Relational Schema

15.  The EXIST keyword will be true if

A.    Any row in the sub query meets the condition only

B.     All rows in the sub query fail the condition only

C.     Both of these two conditions are meeting

D.    Neither of these two conditions is met

16.  Which system table contains information on constraints on all the tables created?

A.    USER_CONSTRAINTS

B.     CLIENT_CONSTRAINTS

C.     DOMAIN_CONSTRAINTS

D.    KEY_CONSTRAINTS

17.  Which of the following Is the 1’s Complement of 10?

A.    01

B.     110

C.     11

D.    10

18.  Fractals deals with curves that are

A.    Irregularly irregular

B.     Regularly irregular

C.     Irregularly regular

D.    Regularly regular

19.  Aspect ratio means

A.    Number of pixels

B.     Ratio of vertical points to horizontal points

C.     Ratio of horizontal points to vertical points

D.    Both (B) and (C)

20.  One of a class storage device devices that can access storage location in any order is

A.    DTE

B.     DASD

C.     DDE

D.    DSE

21.  A technique used by codes to convert an analog signal into a digital bit stream is known as

A.    Pulse code modulation

B.     Pulse stretcher

C.     Query processing

D.    Queue management

22.  The octal equivalence of 111010 is

A.    81

B.     72

C.     71

D.    None of these

23.  Which of the following registers is loaded with the contents of the memory location pointed by the PC?

A.    Memory address register

B.     Memory data register

C.     Instruction registers

D.    Program Counter

24.  The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where the image will actually appear are called

A.    Transformation viewing

B.     View port

C.     Clipping window

D.    Screen coordinate system

25.  The …………………… algorithm divides a 2D space into 9 regions, of which only the middle part (View part) is visible

A.    Cohen – Sutherland

B.     Laing Barsky

C.     Sutherland Hodegeman

D.    N-L-N

26.  Which of the following type of class allows only one object of its type to be created?

A.    Virtual class

B.     Abstract class

C.     Singleton class

D.    Friend class

27.  Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Base class pointer cannot point to derived class

B.     Derived class point cannot point to base class

C.     Pointer to derived class cannot be created

D.    Point to base class cannot be created

28.  Point to base class cannot be created A ……………… is a data structure containing a record for each identifier, with fields for the attribute for the identifier

A.    Table

B.     Open file table

C.     Symbol table

D.    Lexical analyzer

29.  Which are the analyses that are not grouped into one pass?

A.    Lexical

B.     Syntax

C.     Semantic

D.    Code optimizer

30.  The symbol that denotes an empty string is ………………

A.    {ε}

B.     E

C.     {θ}

D.    {}

31.  The output form YACC is

A.    LALR parser

B.     LLLR parser

C.     LLAR parser

D.    LRLR parser

32.  Which of these is most frequently accessed table?

A.    OPTAB

B.     SYMTAB

C.     LITTAB

D.    None of the above

33.  Each entity in linked list organization contains a …………… pointer field

A.    Single

B.     Double

C.     Triple

D.    Quadruple

34.  Which of the following is not a digital to analog conversion?

A.    ASK

B.     PSK

C.     FSK

D.    AM

35.  If QAL, both ………………… of a carrier frequency are varied

A.    Frequency and amplitude

B.     Phase and frequency

C.     Amplitude and phase

D.    None of these

36.  Which layer of OSI reference mode uses the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)?

A.    Transport layer

B.     Data link layer

C.     Network layer

D.    Application layer

37.  Which of the following IP address class is a multicast address?

A.    Class A

B.     Class B

C.     Class C

D.    Class D

38.  Analog to analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is

A.    Low-pass

B.     Band-pass

C.     Either (A) or (B)

D.    None of these

39.  IP version 6 has …………………. Addresses

A.    32 bit

B.     64 bit

C.     128 bit

D.    256 bit

40.  Error control is needed at the transport layer because of potential errors occurring

A.    From transmission line noise

B.     In routine

C.     From out of sequence delivery

D.    From packet losses

41.  Number of binary trees formed with 5 nodes are

A.    32

B.     36

C.     120

D.    42

42.  Which of the following data structure data structure is non-linear type?

A.    Strings

B.     Lists

C.     Stack

D.    None of these

43.  The depth of a complete binary tree is given by

A.    D_n=n log 2n

B.     D_n=n log 2n+1

C.     D_n=log 2 n

D.    D_n = log2n+1

44.  The post traversal of a binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal.

A.    ABFCDE

B.     ADBFEC
ABDECF
ABDCEF

45.  The data structure required for breadth first traversal on a graph is

A.    Queue

B.     Stack

C.     Array

D.    Tree

46.  Which of the following algorithm can be used efficiently calculate single source a shortest paths in a directed acyclic graph?

A.    Dijkstra

B.     Bellman-ford

C.     Topological sort

D.    Strongly connected component

47.  Let G be the non – planner graph with minimum possible number of edged. The G has

A.    9 edges and 5 vertices

B.     9 edges and 6 vertices

C.     10 edges and 5 vertices

D.    10 edges and 6 vertices

48.  Which of the following are java reserved words?

Run

Import

Default

Implement

A.    (1)and (2)

B.     (2)and (3)

C.     (3)and (4)

D.    (2)and (4)

49.  Choose the correct HTML tag for the largest heading

A.    <h1>

B.     <heading>

C.     <head>

D.    <h1>

50.  Which is a perfect example of runtime polymorphism?

A.    Method overloading

B.     Method overriding

C.     Constructor overloading

D.    None of the above

51.  <INPUT> is

A.    Formatting tag

B.     Empty tag

C.     Both (A) and (B)

D.    None of these

52.  The tags elements in XML are

A.    Case –insensitive

B.     Case – sensitive

C.     Browser dependent

D.    None of these

53.  Which of the following is the most commonly used http methods?

A.    PRE and POST

B.     GET and SET

C.     ASK and REPLY

D.    GET and POST

54.  The error distribution in the case of coding is

A.    10%

B.     20%

C.     40%

D.    50%

55.  The model which estimates the total effort in terms of person, months of the technical project staff is

A.    Spiral

B.     Waterfall model

C.     Prototyping

D.    COCOMO model

56.  A program P calls two sub programs P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 can fail 40% times. Then P can fail

A.    50%

B.     60%

C.     10%

D.    70%

57.  …………. Coupling is the worst type of coupling

A.    Data

B.     Content

C.     Control

D.    Stamp

58.  The map definition file is generally stored in

A.    RECYCLE BIN

B.     BIN

C.     CGI – BIN

D.    None of the above

59.  Cyclomatic complexity method comes under in ………… testing method

A.    White box

B.     Black box

C.     Green box

D.    Yellow box

60.  What is noise in terms of software development?

A.    Adding contradictory requirements in SRS document

B.     Writing over-specific requirements

C.     Writing irrelevant statement to the software development in the SRS document

D.    None of the above

61.  Let an instruction takes I ms and page fault takes an additional j ms. If the average page fault occurs after K instructions the effective instruction effective instruction execution time will be

A.    (i+j*k)ms

B.     ((i+j)/k)ms

C.     (i+j/k)ms

D.    (i+2*j/l)ms

62.  Given n processes to be scheduled on one processor, how many possible different schedules are there?

A.    n-1

B.     n

C.     n²

D.    n!

63.  Spin lock is

A.    The time wasted by the context switching

B.     The cycle wasted by the while statement in wait operation of a semaphore

C.     The time wasted by the process in the ready queue

D.    None of these

64.  Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking?

Windows 98

Windows NT

MSDOS

Windows XP

65.  When device A has a cable that plugs into device B, and device B has a cable that plugs into device C and device C plugs into a port on the computer, this arrangement is called

A.    Bus

B.     Cable

C.     Port

D.    Daisy chain

66.  With a single resource, deadlock occurs

A.    If there are more than two processes competing for that resource

B.     If there are only two processes competing for that resource

C.     If there is a single process competing for that resource

D.    None of these

67.  What are the limitations of the semantics network?

A.    Intractability

B.     Incomplete

C.     Lack in expressing some of the properties

D.    Both (A) and (C)

68.  General algorithm applied on game tree for making decision of win/lose is

A.    DFS/BFS search algorithms

B.     Heuristic search algorithms

C.     Greedy search algorithms

D.    MIN/MAX algorithms

69.  Recursive transition network (RTN) is used to represent the rules of

A.    Context free grammar

B.     Regular grammar

C.     Recursive grammar

D.    Both (B) and (c)

70.  Internet like networks between a company and its business partners is called

A.    Intranet

B.     Extranet

C.     Fishnet

D.    Internetworks

71.  A* search uses

A.    A heuristic do decide what is the “best” way to go

B.     The sum of the path do far and the heuristic to estimate the path left

C.     The difference of the path so far and the heuristic to estimate the path left

D.    Both (A) and (B)

72.  Which of the following algorithm is online search algorithm?

A.    Breadth – first search algorithm

B.     Depth – first search algorithm

C.     Hill – climbing search algorithm

D.    None of the mentioned

73.  The first AI programming language is

A.    BASIC

B.     FORTRAN

C.     IPL

D.    LISP

74.  …………………… is one of the brute force search technique

A.    Depth first search

B.     Heuristic search

C.     Best first search

D.    Beam search

75.  Computer chess playing programs have to deal with a major problem called

A.    Horizon effect

B.     Corner effect

C.     Vertical effect

D.    Effect

ANSWER KEY :-

Q.No	Ans	Q.No	Ans	Q.No	Ans	Q.No	Ans	Q.No	Ans
1	D	16	A	31	A	46	C	61	C
2	C	17	A	32	B	47	B	62	D
3	D	18	B	33	A	48	B	63	B
4	A	19	D	34	D	49	D	64	C
5	A	20	B	35	C	50	B	65	D
6	A	21	A	36	C	51	B	66	D
7	B	22	B	37	D	52	B	67	C
8	B	23	C	38	B	53	D	68	D
9	A	24	B	39	C	54	B	69	A
10	C	25	A	40	B	55	D	70	B
11	B	26	C	41	D	56	D	71	D
12	A	27	B	42	D	57	B	72	C
13	A	28	C	43	D	58	C	73	D
14	B	29	D	44	C	59	A	74	A
15	A	30	A	45	A	60	C	75	A